Changes

Line 1,794: Line 1,794:     
<br>
 
<br>
 +
 +
The relation <math>\operatorname{Der}(L)</math> is defined and the notation <math>x ~\overset{L}{=}~ y</math> is meaningful in every situation where the corresponding denotation operator <math>\operatorname{Den}(-,-)</math> makes sense, but it remains to check whether this relation enjoys the properties of an equivalence relation.
    
<pre>
 
<pre>
The relation Der(R) is defined and the notation "x =R y" is meaningful in every situation where Den(-,-) makes sense, but it remains to check whether this relation enjoys the properties of an equivalence relation.
  −
   
1. Reflexive property.  Is it true that  x =R x  for every x C S = I?  By definition, x =R x if and only if Den(R, x) = Den(R, x).  Thus, the reflexive property holds in any setting where the denotations Den(R, x) are defined for all signs x in the syntactic domain of R.
 
1. Reflexive property.  Is it true that  x =R x  for every x C S = I?  By definition, x =R x if and only if Den(R, x) = Den(R, x).  Thus, the reflexive property holds in any setting where the denotations Den(R, x) are defined for all signs x in the syntactic domain of R.
   −
2. Symmetric property.  Does  x =R y  =>  y =R x  for all x, y C S?  In effect, does Den(R, x) = Den(R, y) imply Den(R, y) = Den(R, x) for all signs x and y in the syntactic domain S?  Yes, so long as the sets Den(R, x) and Den(R, y) are well�defined, a fact which is already being assumed.
+
2. Symmetric property.  Does  x =R y  =>  y =R x  for all x, y C S?  In effect, does Den(R, x) = Den(R, y) imply Den(R, y) = Den(R, x) for all signs x and y in the syntactic domain S?  Yes, so long as the sets Den(R, x) and Den(R, y) are well-defined, a fact which is already being assumed.
    
3. Transitive property.  Does  x =R y  &  y =R z  =>  x =R z  for all x, y, z C S?  To belabor the point, does Den(R, x) = Den(R, y) and Den(R, y) = Den(R, z) imply Den(R, x) = Den(R, z) for all x, y, z in S?  Yes, again, under the stated conditions.
 
3. Transitive property.  Does  x =R y  &  y =R z  =>  x =R z  for all x, y, z C S?  To belabor the point, does Den(R, x) = Den(R, y) and Den(R, y) = Den(R, z) imply Den(R, x) = Den(R, z) for all x, y, z in S?  Yes, again, under the stated conditions.
   −
It should be clear at this point that any question about the equiference of signs reduces to a question about the equality of sets, specifically, the sets that are indexed by these signs.  As a result, so long as these sets are well�defined, the issue of whether equiference relations induce equivalence relations on their syntactic domains is almost as trivial as it initially appears.
+
It should be clear at this point that any question about the equiference of signs reduces to a question about the equality of sets, specifically, the sets that are indexed by these signs.  As a result, so long as these sets are well-defined, the issue of whether equiference relations induce equivalence relations on their syntactic domains is almost as trivial as it initially appears.
   −
Taken in its set�theoretic extension, a relation of equiference induces a "denotative equivalence relation" (DER) on its syntactic domain S = I.  This leads to the formation of "denotative equivalence classes" (DEC's), "denotative partitions" (DEP's), and "denotative equations" (DEQ's) on the syntactic domain.  But what does it mean for signs to be equiferent?
+
Taken in its set-theoretic extension, a relation of equiference induces a "denotative equivalence relation" (DER) on its syntactic domain S = I.  This leads to the formation of "denotative equivalence classes" (DEC's), "denotative partitions" (DEP's), and "denotative equations" (DEQ's) on the syntactic domain.  But what does it mean for signs to be equiferent?
    
Notice that this is not the same thing as being "semiotically equivalent", in the sense of belonging to a single "semiotic equivalence class" (SEC), falling into the same part of a "semiotic partition" (SEP), or having a "semiotic equation" (SEQ) between them.  It is only when very felicitous conditions obtain, establishing a concord between the denotative and the connotative components of a sign relation, that these two ideas coalesce.
 
Notice that this is not the same thing as being "semiotically equivalent", in the sense of belonging to a single "semiotic equivalence class" (SEC), falling into the same part of a "semiotic partition" (SEP), or having a "semiotic equation" (SEQ) between them.  It is only when very felicitous conditions obtain, establishing a concord between the denotative and the connotative components of a sign relation, that these two ideas coalesce.
12,080

edits